- #1
jem05
- 56
- 0
hello,
i am given the definition of an exterior derivative as its invariant formula not as the classical coordinate way. ie, i have dw(X1,...,Xn+1) = sum(-1)^i-1 Xi(w(X1,...^Xi^,...,Xn+1)
+ sum(-1)^i+j (w([Xi,Xj],X1,...^Xi^,...,^Xj^,...,Xn+1) where the hats means omitted X.
and i don't have that dw= d(sum wJ dx^J)= sum dwJ wedge dx^J
i want to prove that d^2 = 0 and that d(w1 wedge w2) = dw1 wedge w2 + (-1)^k w1 wedge dw2.
thing is, i want to do that directly from my definition bc its a nasty process trying to prove that the 2 definitions are equivalent then proving the properties on the other definition.
im failing to do that though, any ideas?
thx a lot.
i am given the definition of an exterior derivative as its invariant formula not as the classical coordinate way. ie, i have dw(X1,...,Xn+1) = sum(-1)^i-1 Xi(w(X1,...^Xi^,...,Xn+1)
+ sum(-1)^i+j (w([Xi,Xj],X1,...^Xi^,...,^Xj^,...,Xn+1) where the hats means omitted X.
and i don't have that dw= d(sum wJ dx^J)= sum dwJ wedge dx^J
i want to prove that d^2 = 0 and that d(w1 wedge w2) = dw1 wedge w2 + (-1)^k w1 wedge dw2.
thing is, i want to do that directly from my definition bc its a nasty process trying to prove that the 2 definitions are equivalent then proving the properties on the other definition.
im failing to do that though, any ideas?
thx a lot.