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Extremely quick question (MV calc/waves)

  1. Aug 11, 2004 #1
    My physics book gives this function for the displacement of a wave element oscillating in a longitudinal wave. Later on, they take the partial derivative with respect to time, like so.

    My question: Did my brain fall out, or is the negative sign in the second picture not supposed to be there? I'm open to either possibility right now :biggrin:
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 11, 2004 #2

    HallsofIvy

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    You are correct. You get one negative from the [itex]kx-\omega t[/itex] and another from the derivative of cosine.
     
  4. Aug 11, 2004 #3

    Gokul43201

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    Don't be. Understand your basics well enough that you know when something's right and when it's wrong. Your brain is doing good...just needs to feel more confident, and confidence comes from familiarity. :smile:
     
  5. Aug 12, 2004 #4
    Thanks for your replies!
     
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