- #1

MathematicalPhysicist

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my question: does the morphism above imply the other way around, ie, y->x?

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- Thread starter MathematicalPhysicist
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- #1

MathematicalPhysicist

Gold Member

- 4,699

- 369

my question: does the morphism above imply the other way around, ie, y->x?

- #2

bogdan

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Well...if it's bijective...yes...and it's a homomorphism...I guess...[?]

- #3

lethe

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Originally posted by loop quantum gravity

my question: does the morphism above imply the other way around, ie, y->x?

there is a set of morphisms between any objects in your category. so while it is not correct to say that x-->y implies y-->x, it is true that there exists a set of morphisms (which might be trivial) from y-->x. but this is not dependent on the morphisms from x-->y

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