Metric Spaces: Theorem of Open Unions & Families of Sets

In summary: The word family also conveys a sense of relatedness and belonging to a larger group, which may be useful in certain contexts. In summary, the use of the term "family" in the stated theorem and in the definition of a topology serves to simplify and clarify the statements, and may also convey a sense of relatedness and belonging among the subsets.
  • #1
union68
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I'm looking over some stuff from metric spaces and I came across the familiar theorem:

Let [tex]\left(X,d\right)[/tex] be a metric space and let [tex] \left\{ U_\alpha \right\}_{\alpha \in A} [/tex] be a family of open subsets of [tex]X[/tex]. Then the union of the family [tex] \left\{U_\alpha\right\}_{\alpha \in A }[/tex] is an open subset of [tex]X[/tex].

The proof is straightforward -- that's not my issue. My question is, why was this theorem stated using the idea of a "family of subsets" instead of a "set of subsets?" This same idea of "family of sets" pops up in the definition of a topology also, so I want to make sure I understand it.

I resorted back to Halmos' Naive Set Theory and he says, "Observe that there is no loss of generality in considering families of sets instead of arbitrary collections of sets;...", so why don't they just say an arbitrary union of sets?

What am I missing here? What's the point of speaking of families?
 
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  • #2
They use the term family when they want to emphasize that they are all subsets of some set ([itex]U_a \subseteq X[/itex]). Formally there is no difference, but you rarely speak about a family of integers because we don't think of 5 a set (even though according to most definitions it is). I have also heard it used simply to introduce some variety in the sentence structure (just as collection is used).

According to some definitions families of sets are allowed to be proper classes instead of sets. So for instance the class of all sets can be called the family of all sets, but not the set of all sets as that would produce a contradiction. That's not relevant in this case though as [itex]P(X)[/itex] is a set if [itex]X[/itex] is a set.

EDIT: Also when we index a collection of sets by an indexing sets we call it an indexed family of sets and sometimes we drop the term indexed (as in your case).
 
  • #3
union68 said:
What's the point of speaking of families?

It's a matter of convenience that makes the statements easier to follow - especially for theorems where the structure or size of the index set matters (e.g. ordered, countable etc).
 

1. What is a metric space?

A metric space is a mathematical structure that consists of a set of objects and a distance function, which measures the distance between any two objects in the set. It is a way of defining and studying the properties of spaces that are defined by distance.

2. What is the Theorem of Open Unions?

The Theorem of Open Unions states that the union of any collection of open sets in a metric space is also an open set. In other words, if a set is open and we take the union of that set with any other open sets, the resulting set will also be open.

3. How is the Theorem of Open Unions useful?

This theorem is useful in proving the openness of certain sets and in establishing the properties of open sets in a metric space. It also allows us to easily construct new open sets by taking unions of existing open sets.

4. What is a family of sets?

A family of sets is a collection of sets that share a common property or characteristic. In the context of metric spaces, a family of sets may refer to a collection of open sets or closed sets.

5. How is the Theorem of Open Unions related to families of sets?

The Theorem of Open Unions is often used in the context of families of sets to prove the openness of certain sets or to establish properties of families of open sets. Additionally, the idea of taking unions of open sets can be applied to families of sets in general, not just in the context of metric spaces.

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