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Fan effect

  1. Dec 6, 2005 #1
    If one has a cooling fan that uses 6 kW, does that automatically mean that the room receives 6 kW worth of heat?
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 6, 2005 #2


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    Could you elaborate upon the question? The answer is going to be 'no', but I'm not really sure what you're talking about.
  4. Dec 6, 2005 #3
    Well, I'm doing a calculation on a rooms need for cooling. This need is of course linked to how much heat gets into the room during some period of time. Now, there is this fan in the room that has an effect of 6 kW, but am I to assume that all this energy is converted into heat and added to the room so that there would just be another 6 kW for the cooling system to remove? Or will only a portion of this energy actually be turned into heat?
  5. Dec 6, 2005 #4


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    It's still a little vague. From your first post, I thought you meant that the fan drew 6KW in order to operate. This time, it seems that you mean its cooling capacity (which doesn't really apply) is 6KW. The fan itself will only move air, not cool it. In that case, the heat that it supplies to the room is waste from the motor. I think that this is a Fred or Clausius sort of question, or Astro. Come to think of it, isn't this Russ' specialty? Anyone but me... help!
  6. Dec 10, 2005 #5
    I would say that it depends on the efficiency of the motor. Whatever energy is not used for pushing air of those 6 KW then is heat.
    either way i dont think a motor by itself woulf cool the room, if you aimed it at water on the room then that would help (until the water recondensated)
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