I ave a research to do on Faraday effect.
I found an explanation were they said that a linearly-polarized beam of light may be considered as the superposition of equal amounts of right- and left-circularly polarized beams. The right- and left-circularly polarized beams or pi/2 and -pi/2 right?
If I'm right they are at 180 degree of each other and it give 0 as along the axes not a linear polarized wave.
I used Matlab:
t = 0:pi/50:4*pi;
X1 = cos(t-pi/2)
Y1 = sin(t-pi/2)
X2 = cos(t+pi/2)
Y2 = sin(t+pi/2)
X3 = X1+X2
Y3 = Y1+Y2
Is it the explanation or my interpretation and if its me what is the correct way???