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Faraday's law and distance

  1. Apr 8, 2009 #1
    This is just a general question, no calculations or homework-like wording involved! It's just a little something that has been bugging me.

    Faraday's law states emf = change in flux with respect to time. Let's say I'm generating this change in flux with an inductor somewhere in space. (I want all of the flux in a fixed "area" for this).

    Now, since Faraday's law only states the emf is dependent upon change in flux, doesn't this mean that no matter how far I am from the inductor, I get the same emf? If so, shouldn't we be experiencing emf from electronics all the time, interfering with and inducing voltages everywhere?

    Thanks for taking a look at this! :)

    -Max
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 8, 2009 #2

    rl.bhat

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    Strength of flux depends upon the distance of the source from the coil. Coil must be exposed to the change of flux to produce emf.
     
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