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Faraday's law clarification

  1. May 8, 2014 #1
    In the formula: ## emf = -\dfrac{d\phi}{dt}##, ##\phi = \int B\cdot dA##.
    Does the area mean only the part of the region which has a magnetic field (if it's constant)?

    for example, if you have a loop around a toroid, and want to calculate the induced emf, would ##\phi = B(\pi radiusoftoroid)^2 ## or ##\phi = B (\pi radiusofregion)^2## ?

    I personally believe the former, but cannot verify this.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 8, 2014 #2
    The area is the area bounded by the loop along which the emf is being measured
     
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