Faraday's law of induction is(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

emf = - (d/dt) ∫_{S}B∙da.

When the closed loop (serving as the boundary of the surface S) is independent of time, the above relation is equivalent to the Maxwell equation

curlE= - ∂B/∂t .

However, when the closed loop C (i.e. the boundary of S) is itself a function of time, the following two questions seem relevant to ask:

(i) How is the first equation above to be applied?

(ii) Is this method consistent with Galilean (or Lorentz) invariance?

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# Faraday's law of induction

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