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Farady's law and div B = 0

  1. Mar 3, 2007 #1
    I'm reading a book on electromagnetism and I am a bit confused about some things in Maxwells equations. This is what I don't like about many physics books: they are very wordy, but at the end you don't know what is an experimental fact, what is a "theorem", what is an assumption and so on,...

    Anyway the questions are:

    1. Is Faraday's law a consequence of Coulomb's and Biot-Savart's (or Ampere's) law?

    2. Is divB = 0 consequence of Biot-Savart's law i.e. if we found the magnetic monopole, would that mean that Biot-Savart's law is not true? (I think so, but I am not 100% sure)
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 3, 2007 #2

    Meir Achuz

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    1. No, it is a new law, not envisioned by Coulomb, Biot, Savart, nor even Farady until he discovered it.
    2. divB=0 is derivable from the B-S law. and was originally found that way,
    but one can start the study of magnetostatics with divB=0 and curlB~j and derive B-S. The two laws are compatible, each derivable from the other.
    If a magpole exists, then divB is no longer zero and a Coulomb-like term would have to be added to B-S, but B-S would still give the B field of a current. What EM book are you reading?
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