I'm reading a book on electromagnetism and I am a bit confused about some things in Maxwells equations. This is what I don't like about many physics books: they are very wordy, but at the end you don't know what is an experimental fact, what is a "theorem", what is an assumption and so on,...(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Anyway the questions are:

1. Is Faraday's law a consequence of Coulomb's and Biot-Savart's (or Ampere's) law?

2. Is divB = 0 consequence of Biot-Savart's law i.e. if we found the magnetic monopole, would that mean that Biot-Savart's law is not true? (I think so, but I am not 100% sure)

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# Homework Help: Farady's law and div B = 0

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