Suppose we have particles of kind B, that consist of two fermions of kind F. Now the particles B satisfy the Bose statistics. But what precisely does this mean? If we have four F particles, the system is described by a wave function(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]

\psi(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4)

[/tex]

Suppose the particles 1 and 2 are bounded and form one particle B, and 3 and 4 are bounded too. Then it should be possible to approximate this system as a two particle system

[tex]

\approx \psi'(x_{12}, x_{34})

[/tex]

where [itex]x_{12}[/itex] and [itex]x_{34}[/itex] are some kind of approximate coordinates for the particles B.

How can these ideas made more rigor? We have

[tex]

\psi(x_{\sigma(1)}, x_{\sigma(2)}, x_{\sigma(3)}, x_{\sigma(4)}) = \varepsilon(\sigma) \psi(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4),

[/tex]

and we want to prove

[tex]

\psi'(x_{12}, x_{34}) = \psi'(x_{34}, x_{12}).

[/tex]

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Fermi and Bose statistics

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**