I had a question about the final value theorem:
I was told I can only use this if I know that a final value exists for f, or in other words that f(infinity) exists.
How can I check if it exists? If I have F(s), the only way I can think to check is to find the inverse Laplace and then see. If I do that, then there is no use of me applying the final value theorem as I will already know what it is.
Can some explain how one can determine whether or not the final value exists before applying the theorem?