- #1
- 2,810
- 604
In texts about Lagrangian mechanics,at first Lagrangian is defined as below:
[itex] L=T-V [/itex]
T and V being kinetic and potential energy respectively
But when you proceed,they say that for some forces like magnetic forces Lagrangian is as such and can't be obtained by the above formula but it doesn't say how it obtains the Lagrangian for a particle subjected to magnetic forces.
I want to know is there a general procedure for finding the Lagrangian?
Thanks
[itex] L=T-V [/itex]
T and V being kinetic and potential energy respectively
But when you proceed,they say that for some forces like magnetic forces Lagrangian is as such and can't be obtained by the above formula but it doesn't say how it obtains the Lagrangian for a particle subjected to magnetic forces.
I want to know is there a general procedure for finding the Lagrangian?
Thanks