Can anyone please help me with this because I'm really getting confused. Thanks!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

In R, we know that fine topology is equivalent to the Euclidean topology as convex functions are continuous.

Now if instead of R we consider a subset of it say [0,1], the fine topology induced on [0,1] would it be equivalent to the Euclidean topology induced on [0,1] ?

Thanks once again

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Fine toplogy

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**