Can anyone please help me with this because I'm really getting confused. Thanks!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

In R, we know that fine topology is equivalent to the Euclidean topology as convex functions are continuous.

Now if instead of R we consider a subset of it say [0,1], the fine topology induced on [0,1] would it be equivalent to the Euclidean topology induced on [0,1] ?

Thanks once again

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# Fine toplogy

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