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Finite heat capacity

  1. May 20, 2010 #1
    just trying to get my head around heat capacity here for an experiment;

    if conducting a reaction in an adiabatic vessel, of which its material has a finite heat capacity, does this mean that if sufficient heat is produced within the vessel (through a chemical reaction), that the adiabatic assumption will no longer apply because heat will be transferred outside of the vessel?

    if that's true, how could you correct for the errors that may arise in the adiabatic assumption?
  2. jcsd
  3. May 20, 2010 #2
    Every material has finite capacity as heat capacity degradation is true when [tex]T\to\infty[/tex] and heat flows from 'warm' to 'cold'. For the adiabatic assumption to be maintained, I imagine that a water bath with a temperature equal to the temperature of the reaction in the vessel would have to be employed to keep the process truly adiabatic. The energy required to keep the bath at the temperature of the vessel to ensure that no heat transferred would be equal to that produced in the vessel.
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