- #1

Orion1

- 970

- 3

Any Calculus researchers interested in disproving this theorem with a simple base and function?

Orion1 change of base theorem:

[tex]\frac{d}{dx} (\log_v u) = \frac{1}{u \ln(v)} \frac{du}{dx} - \frac{\ln(u)}{v \ln^2 (v)} \frac{dv}{dx}[/tex]

Is this theorem correct?

Does this theorem accept functions in the base?