- #1
DaTario
- 1,039
- 35
Hi All,
This point was raised by a professor friend of mine, in an examination for entering MsC on science education.
Why three laws for mechanics if the first law (inertia) can be derived as a particular case of the second (F = ma) ?
We should have only two laws.
Thak you All,
Sincerely
DaTario
This point was raised by a professor friend of mine, in an examination for entering MsC on science education.
Why three laws for mechanics if the first law (inertia) can be derived as a particular case of the second (F = ma) ?
We should have only two laws.
Thak you All,
Sincerely
DaTario