- #1
Silviu
- 624
- 11
Hello! I am a bit confused about the first Sylow theorem. So it says that if you have a group of order ##p^mn##, with gcd(n,p)=1, you must have a subgroup H of G of order ##p^m##. So, if I have a group G of order ##p^k##, there is only one subgroup of G of order ##p^k## which is G itself. Does this means that any group of order ##p^k##, with p prime is cyclic?
Thank you!
Thank you!