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Fluid Mechanics

  1. Feb 3, 2010 #1
    It has been a while since I've had calculus. I am working on a fluid mechanics problem:
    I have reduced the Navier-Stokes equation and this is what I have:
    mu [d/dr (1/r d/dr (r v(angular)))] = 0
    How do I solve for v(angular) ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 3, 2010 #2


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    Hi jojoba! :smile:

    (have a mu: µ and an omega: ω :wink:)
    d(ωr) = Kr dr :wink:
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