# Force Question

1. Oct 13, 2004

### qwexor

Force Question - Still want another oppinion!

A man pulls a cart on a friction fee surface by means of a pulley and rope. He pulls the rope at 600 N. Now replace the man's action with an iron weight of 60 kg so that it is attached to the end of the rope. The cart is again set in motion. Is the acceleration the same in both situations. ( Use g to 10m/s/s) , (mass of cart = 50kg)

You can see a picture of the situation here: http://www.members.shaw.ca/qwex/physics.jpg

So my assumption is that both the man and the weight would pull with 600 N downwards. So would this make the acceleration the same. I'm guessing the distance is the same in both situations as well. Is there any way I can explain this? Am I even correct? Thank you!

Last edited: Oct 14, 2004
2. Oct 13, 2004

### XMLT

I think you are right, the acceleration would be the same since to determine the force that the iron pulls the cart. We use the formula:
F = ma = 60 x 10 = 600 N which is the same as the force that the man pulls the rope.

XMLT

3. Oct 13, 2004

### qwexor

Thanks! Any one else?

4. Oct 14, 2004

### aekanshchumber

Acceleration will be the same, it depends only on the force applied to it. If the angle, at which tension is prodced, is same then the acc. will be the same.
To show it correct prove it mathematically or go to the experiments.
a = f/m = 600/50 = 12 (man pulled)
a = f/m = (M*g)/m = 60*10/50 = 12