Force Question - Still want another oppinion! A man pulls a cart on a friction fee surface by means of a pulley and rope. He pulls the rope at 600 N. Now replace the man's action with an iron weight of 60 kg so that it is attached to the end of the rope. The cart is again set in motion. Is the acceleration the same in both situations. ( Use g to 10m/s/s) , (mass of cart = 50kg) You can see a picture of the situation here: http://www.members.shaw.ca/qwex/physics.jpg So my assumption is that both the man and the weight would pull with 600 N downwards. So would this make the acceleration the same. I'm guessing the distance is the same in both situations as well. Is there any way I can explain this? Am I even correct? Thank you!