1. Apr 8, 2007 #1

   pivoxa15

   

   1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
   The psi function for a free particle is e^(i(kx-wt))
   
   But does it satisfy the SE?
   
   2. Relevant equations
   SE
   
   
   3. The attempt at a solution
   I get w=hk^2/(4(pi)m) when plugged into the SE
   
   but does w really equal that?

    

   pivoxa15, Apr 8, 2007
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3. Apr 8, 2007 #2

   christianjb

   

   E=hbar w = hbar^2 k^2 / 2m

    

   christianjb, Apr 8, 2007
4. Apr 8, 2007 #3

   quasar987

   

   Science Advisor

   Homework Helper

   Gold Member

   There's one hbar too many in there, no?

    

   quasar987, Apr 8, 2007

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