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Fourier Analysis

  1. Aug 31, 2004 #1
    1) Why can't f(x) = 1, -&inf; < x < &inf; be represented as a Fourier integral?
    Is it because it must be defined on a finite interval?

    2) Could someone tell me how you find the embedded harmonics in a given periodic function using Fourier series and integrals? Either a quick demonstration or outline, or a link.

    Many thanks.
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 31, 2004 #2
    1) Perhaps it is because the integral &int;_infinity^infinity |f(x)|dx does not exist.
  4. Aug 31, 2004 #3
    1) For the Fourier integral to exist, we require that [itex]\int_{-\infty}^\infty |f(x)| dx < \infty. [/itex] i.e. the function needs to be absolutely integrable, which no non-zero constant function satisfies.
    Last edited: Aug 31, 2004
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