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I got the following fourier series

F.S f(x)= (pi/2) - (4/pi) [tex]\sum[/tex]n=1,3.. to infinity (1/n^2 cos (nx))

l= pi

After deriving it the question now is how can i use it to show

[tex]\sum[/tex] n=1 to infinity (1/(2n-1)^2= 1+ 1/3^2 + 1/5^2 +... = pi^2/8

I think I am not sure what I have to do here.

Thanks

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# Fourier Series question

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