- #1
mnb96
- 715
- 5
Hello,
I read somewhere that if a function f decays rapidly (e.g. [itex]\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)=0 )[/itex], then its Fourier transform F is smooth.
How can I prove this? (Reference to some sources are welcome too).
Thanks.
I read somewhere that if a function f decays rapidly (e.g. [itex]\lim_{x \to \infty}f(x)=0 )[/itex], then its Fourier transform F is smooth.
How can I prove this? (Reference to some sources are welcome too).
Thanks.