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little1406

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- Why do we have to rotate the polarizers at all? If we set one at 45 degrees w.r.t. the other, doesn’t the >50% coincidences prove quantum non-locality.

The freedom-of-choice loophole to explain the results of quantum entanglement experiments says that somehow a non-random manipulation of the two polarizer angles could reproduce the prediction of Bell’s inequality without quantum non-locality. But it strikes me that the experiment could be conducted with polarizers fixed at 45 degrees w.r.t. each other. Classically we expect exactly 50% coincidences but quantum entanglement of the particles will produce >50% coincidences. If this is true, then doesn’t that invalidate the freedom-of-choice loophole??

(my apologies if this seems stupid. It took me years to really grasp what’s surprising about the results of these experiments.)

(my apologies if this seems stupid. It took me years to really grasp what’s surprising about the results of these experiments.)