- #1
- 74
- 1
The magnetic moment of protons precesses at a frequency ω0=γB0 about the static magnetic field.
In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)
Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks
In order to move the magnetisation vector into the transverse plane the RF pulse must be applied at a frequency
ω0. However, as B1 (the field strength of the RF pulse) is << B1 how is this possible (as ω0=γB0 >> ω1=γB1)
Does this makes sense. Please can someone explain where I am going wrong
Thanks