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Friction loss

  1. Apr 8, 2016 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    IMO , the hx should be [ [(V1)^2] - [(V2)^2 ] ] / 2g , am i right ?

    2. Relevant equations


    3. The attempt at a solution
     

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 8, 2016 #2

    BvU

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  4. Apr 9, 2016 #3
    however , in this link , the hx is [ (V1- V2)^2] / 2g .... which one is correct ? [ [(V1)^2] - [(V2)^2 ] ] / 2g or [ (V1- V2)^2] / 2g ??
    http://www.iith.ac.in/~ksahu/class12_FM.pdf
    please refer to pg 6 & 7
     
  5. Apr 9, 2016 #4

    BvU

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    Confusing indeed. Have to withdraw my "Yeah" in post #2 -- o:) -- and turn it into a "Nope".
    From your link it appears that a combination of Bernoulli and momentum balance indeed leads to this 4.28 in post #1.
    So: we stand corrected ! Well done ! (your part at least...:smile:)
     
  6. Apr 9, 2016 #5
    ok , so the link is correct ? i understand the expaination provided in the link and kniow my mistake already.
     
  7. Apr 9, 2016 #6

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    My "Yeah" has lost some of its weight, but: yeah :smile:
     
  8. Apr 9, 2016 #7
    i thought your yeah mean 'yes'
     
  9. Apr 9, 2016 #8

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    In short: yes, the links in post #1 and also in post #3 are correct. In fact the link in #2 agrees quite well. (more egg on face...)
    And yeah, I mean yes with "yeah" and no with "nope". Bad habit on a forum like PF, I know. But I can't help it ?:) .
     
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