- #1
Femme_physics
Gold Member
- 2,550
- 1
I know that fsN (static friction x Normal force) is max static friction that can be applied on a force. But when max isn't used, does that mean the friction coefficient is lower?
If the force applied in the line of motion is less than what is sufficient to allow sliding then friction force equal to the magnitude of the applied force acts on the body , so as to keep the body at rest.
Static friction is a self adjusting force
I know that fsN (static friction x Normal force) is max static friction that can be applied on a force.
Except that , i feel that my explanation is correct , isn't it?
Static friction is the force that keeps an object at rest on a surface. It is the resistance between two surfaces that are not moving relative to each other.
Static friction occurs when an object is at rest, while kinetic friction occurs when an object is in motion. The magnitude of static friction is typically greater than that of kinetic friction.
The value of the friction coefficient, represented by the symbol μ, depends on the types of materials in contact, the roughness of the surfaces, and the force pressing the surfaces together.
The friction coefficient can be measured by conducting experiments where the force required to move an object across a surface is compared to the weight of the object pressing down on the surface. The ratio of these two values is the friction coefficient.
Yes, the friction coefficient can be greater than 1. This indicates that the force required to move an object is greater than the weight of the object itself. However, in most cases, the friction coefficient is less than 1.