- #1
mhill
- 189
- 1
under what condition the does the equality hold ?
[tex] \int_{0}^{\infty} dt \frac{ f(at)-f(bt)}{g(t)}= (G(b)-G(a))(f(0)-f(\infty)) [/tex]
and [tex] \int dt g(t) [/tex]
[tex] \int_{0}^{\infty} dt \frac{ f(at)-f(bt)}{g(t)}= (G(b)-G(a))(f(0)-f(\infty)) [/tex]
and [tex] \int dt g(t) [/tex]