- #1
Jhenrique
- 685
- 4
I remember a teacher speaking that the fubini's theorem is valid under certain conditions. Implying that not is valid under others. I didn't understood exactly what this teacher was speaking, but the doubt remains still today. We know that ##\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y \partial x}## is always equal to ##\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x \partial y}##, unless that proofs the contrary. The same way, ##\int \int f\;dx dy## is unconditionally equals to ##\int \int f\;dy dx##?