Given a function f(x) f:A --> B, can the choice of codomain affect whether or not the function is surjective? For instance, f(x) = exp(x), f:R --> R is an injection but not surjection. However, assuming we can vary the co-domain, and lets make it f: R --> (0, inf), f(x) is now bijection. Is this correct?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Function Co-domain!

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