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Function relation

  1. Jul 24, 2015 #1
    I'm very sure this is wrong. I think the f^i(x) should be changed to a g^i(x) where g^i(x) is some function (I'm guessing either Gamma or Beta) and that the infinity sign should be changed to a i-->k where k is some arbitrary value. Reason being f^i(x) will always equal zero and j/i! will also always tend to zero.

    Besides that I have absolutely nothing to say about this so I was hoping for some expert opinion and perhaps if you could recommend any reading I could do to better my understanding on the subject.

    Thank you!

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  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 24, 2015 #2


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    No, you are wrong here. This is nothing but the Maclaurin series (i.e., Taylor series around ##x = 0##) for any infinitely differentiable function.
  4. Jul 24, 2015 #3
    Thanks a lot Orodruin. Is there any books you can recommend for the Taylor Series?
  5. Jul 24, 2015 #4


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    So far as I know, every first introduction to calculus has this (including derivation, convergence criteria, etc.)
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