Here is a question, that is so many levels above my analytical, logical, mathematical and physics skills (which sum up, in my case, to no more than popular science and science fiction reading), so the only reason that i am still asking this question, is that, not asking a question, seems to me, to be an act of even more foolishness.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Now,

Isn't there some kind of unsuitability, between the Galilean principle of relativity, and Gödel's incompleteness theorems?

I ask this question, since it seems to me (and i am probably, oops, wrong, well, one more time) that the Galilean principle of relativity, either says, that there can be no change, in known physical laws, at different inertial frames, and then, this means, that logically, the Galilean principle of relativity, is trying to negate something, using a set of rules, but doing so, only within that specific set of rules, or either that the Galilean principle of relativity says, that all the known and unknown physical laws, stay the same, within different inertial frames, and that means, that every new law, can be proven, only using past known set of laws/rules.

Isn't it so, in this sense, that the Galilean principle of relativity, is conjecturing, just what Gödel's has proved as a false (or an incomplete?) conjecture?

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# Galilean principle of relativity and Gödel's incompleteness theorems

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