- #1
batballbat
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1. how can the experimental result that the distance covered by a body during free fall is directly proportional to the square of time imply that the motion is uniformly accelerated? (of course the result agrees with one of a property of uni. accelerated motion but can we show that in nonuniformly accelerated motion the distance is not proportional to time squared?)
2. galileo showed that for a free fall is uniformly accelerated. but how did he show that the acceleration which is constant for a body is same for all other bodies? (i know the statement is implied from the Newtons second law. but how did galielo conclude it?)
2. galileo showed that for a free fall is uniformly accelerated. but how did he show that the acceleration which is constant for a body is same for all other bodies? (i know the statement is implied from the Newtons second law. but how did galielo conclude it?)