If I was a serious gambler there is a small chance that I could place 50,000,000 bets physically at a casino. Pretending that the game we are playing offers fair odds, the chances of one particular outcome coming up 1000 times in a row within the set compared to the same particular outcome coming up 100 times must be much less. If this is true the probability of 20 particular outcomes in a row must be less then the probability that 10 of the same particular outcomes can come up. Doesn't this prove that there is a tendency towards randomness meaning that there is a tendency to have less of the same particular value coming up in a row. To me, this logic proves that the gamblers fallacy is in itself a fallacy. Or do you believe that all 50,000,000 could be the same value for anyone living on earth? I had a roulette wheel with no greens in mind.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Gamblers fallacy a fallacy?

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