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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi,

In Electrodynamics, one often state about the gauge freedom of the magnetic potential. And so, we may choose to impose for example the Coulomb gauge, where the divergence of the potential is zero. But, isn't this only true if there exist no changing electrical field,

[itex] \frac{\partial E}{\partial t}[/itex] = 0 as in the magnetostatics case ? Why would it be called a freedom then, if this is situation dependent ?

Thanks.

In Electrodynamics, one often state about the gauge freedom of the magnetic potential. And so, we may choose to impose for example the Coulomb gauge, where the divergence of the potential is zero. But, isn't this only true if there exist no changing electrical field,

[itex] \frac{\partial E}{\partial t}[/itex] = 0 as in the magnetostatics case ? Why would it be called a freedom then, if this is situation dependent ?

Thanks.