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I have introduced the Lorentz gauge on my perturbed metric ## \gamma_{\alpha\beta} ## given by ##\partial^{a}\gamma_{\alpha\beta}##. However, there remains the freedom to make further gauge transformations $$\gamma_{\alpha\beta} \rightarrow \gamma_{\alpha\beta} + \partial_{\alpha}\xi_{\beta} + \partial_{\beta}\xi_{\alpha}$$ provided that $$\partial^{\beta}\partial_{\beta}\xi^{a}=0$$
But I what I don't understand is that after taking the divergence on ##\gamma_{\alpha\beta} + \partial_{\alpha}\xi_{\beta} + \partial_{\beta}\xi_{\alpha}## and using the condition ##\partial^{\beta}\partial_{\beta}\xi^{\alpha}=0## we are still left with the term $$\partial^{\beta}\partial_{\alpha}\xi_{\beta}$$ But this term must be zero in order for the lorentz condition to hold. But how can this term be zero?
But I what I don't understand is that after taking the divergence on ##\gamma_{\alpha\beta} + \partial_{\alpha}\xi_{\beta} + \partial_{\beta}\xi_{\alpha}## and using the condition ##\partial^{\beta}\partial_{\beta}\xi^{\alpha}=0## we are still left with the term $$\partial^{\beta}\partial_{\alpha}\xi_{\beta}$$ But this term must be zero in order for the lorentz condition to hold. But how can this term be zero?
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