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Generating function

  1. Jul 23, 2004 #1
    Let be a series Sum(0,infinite)anX^n=f(x) then could it be inverted to get the an?..in fact if we set x=1/Z the series becomes

    anZ^-n=Zeta transform of an so we could invert this (as seen in mathworld.com),could it be done to get the an?..thanks.
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 23, 2004 #2


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    "Zeta transform" isn't a term I've seen often, but I think it usually refers to the inverse of Mobeius inversion. Is this what you mean? If so, I don't see how it will help unless you know more information about the [tex]a_n[/tex] terms then you've indicated.
  4. Jul 23, 2004 #3


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    The an are, of course, given by the Taylor series formula:
    [tex]\frac{1}{n!}\frac{d^nf}{dx^n}(0) [/tex]
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