hi can anyone tell me how could one go about to prove x* (delta)' ~ -delta where delta is the dirac delta funtion of x. ~ approximately equal delta' = first derivative of delta i know this can be done by using the concept of GENERALISED FUNTIONS. WHICH INVOLVES MUTLIPLYING THE LHS OF THE EQUATION WITH A GOOD FUNCTION and taking limits to infinity to get the RHS.. I tried but there is something wrong. can anyone help me out?