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can anyone tell me how could one go about to prove

x* (delta)' ~ -delta

where delta is the dirac delta funtion of x.

~ approximately equal

delta' = first derivative of delta

i know this can be done by using the concept of GENERALISED FUNTIONS.

WHICH INVOLVES MUTLIPLYING THE LHS OF THE EQUATION WITH A GOOD FUNCTION and taking limits to infinity to get the RHS..

I tried but there is something wrong.

can anyone help me out?

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# Genralized functions

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