I tried putting this in the math forum, but got no response:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I can find various derivations of ∫ dθ = 0 which are satisfactory, but none of ∫dθ θ =1.

Cheng and Li says it's just a normalization convention, of course that assumes that the integral is finite.

Is this just a matter of definition, or is there a better reason that that?

Thanks very much !

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# Grassmann Integral Question

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