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Grassmann Integral Question

  1. Oct 11, 2011 #1
    I tried putting this in the math forum, but got no response:

    I can find various derivations of ∫ dθ = 0 which are satisfactory, but none of ∫dθ θ =1.

    Cheng and Li says it's just a normalization convention, of course that assumes that the integral is finite.

    Is this just a matter of definition, or is there a better reason that that?

    Thanks very much !
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 11, 2011 #2
    As far as I remember, it's a definition.
  4. Oct 13, 2011 #3
    Thank you.

    The rules for differentiation seems natural enough, and they do seem to give arguments for ∫dθ = 0, but not for ∫dθ θ =1.
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