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please i need your help!
prove: "A nonempty set of real numbers bounded from below has a greatest lower bound."
prove: "A nonempty set of real numbers bounded from below has a greatest lower bound."
Mariouma and Cristo are assuming that you are allowed to use the fact that "if a set of real numbers has an upper bound then it has a least upper bound"- what Cristo called the "completeness axiom". Is that true?
adityab88 is, I think, assuming that you have to prove that completenss axiom from the definition of the real numbers. It very easy to do that from the Dedekind cut definition of the real numbers.