- #1

- 13

- 0

Well, the angle of a function can be determined by arctan(y')

The Rate of Angle change is (arctan(y'))', which equals [itex]\frac{y'}{(y')^2 +1}[/itex]

So the greatest rate of angle change is the derivative of that set to zero, which is equal to

[itex]\frac{y''' - 2(y')^2y' + y'''(y')^2}{((y')^2 +1)} = 0[/itex]

Which , you can simplify to....

[itex]y''' - 2(y')^2y' + y'''(y')^2= 0[/itex]

Is there a way that this differential equation can be solved? (This is not for homework, this is just a general question that I would like to know the answer to)