- #1
Petar Mali
- 290
- 0
I have a few questions about this effect. If I have some semiconductor of N type in which I have electrical field in x direction, and magnetic field in z direction
[tex]\vec{E}=E\vec{e}_x[/tex]
[tex]\vec{B}=B\vec{e}_z[/tex]
Then Lorence force is in the -y direction because in N type of semiconductor [tex]n>>p[/tex] so
[tex]F_l=-e\vec{\upsilon_D}x\vec{B}[/tex]
And for this case Hall constant [tex]R_H=-\frac{1}{ne}[/tex] is negative. Am I right?
And in same case but for P type Lorentz force will be
[tex]F_l=e\vec{\upsilon_D}x\vec{B}[/tex]
so in y direction, and Hall constant
[tex]R_H=\frac{1}{pe}[/tex]?
[tex]\vec{E}=E\vec{e}_x[/tex]
[tex]\vec{B}=B\vec{e}_z[/tex]
Then Lorence force is in the -y direction because in N type of semiconductor [tex]n>>p[/tex] so
[tex]F_l=-e\vec{\upsilon_D}x\vec{B}[/tex]
And for this case Hall constant [tex]R_H=-\frac{1}{ne}[/tex] is negative. Am I right?
And in same case but for P type Lorentz force will be
[tex]F_l=e\vec{\upsilon_D}x\vec{B}[/tex]
so in y direction, and Hall constant
[tex]R_H=\frac{1}{pe}[/tex]?