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Have they solved this fluid flow problem right?

  1. Aug 11, 2009 #1
    This is a problem about fluid flow in ducts the fluid has viscosity and it is laminar flow.
    Please look at the problem and sollution here:

    http://img156.imageshack.us/i/80737443.png/

    They have said that the head loss equals the elevation change. But if you use bernoulis equation with the correlations for friction, and also use the fact that the velocity is the same at both ends(which is usually done in these kind of fluid flow problems). We get that the friction head loss equals the difference in elevetion + the difference in preassure(divided by density*g), why have they omitted this second part?

    please help
     
  2. jcsd
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