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- Thread starter bedi
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So [itex](x_{k_n})_n[/itex] converges to both x and y. Thus x must equal y.

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Bacle2

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indefinitely-close to each other, e.g., d(x,y)<1/n for all n , then x=y by,e.g., the

Archimedean Property. Use the triangle inequality to show that, in a metric space,

if a sequence has two limits L1, L2, then L1 is indefinitely-close to L2.

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