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Help for two questions.

  1. Dec 8, 2013 #1
    1) If a function is analytic, might its imaginary and real parts be called absolutely harmonic?
    2) If real and imaginary parts of a function is not harmonic, then it can't be analytic?

    Are these statements true or false? thanks
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 8, 2013 #2


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    Gold Member

    I think using Cauchy-Riemann conditions you can find your answers easily.Just try to get Laplace equation out of them.
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