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Help inequality proof

  1. May 13, 2008 #1
    Can anyone help me prove this inequality?
    See upload~

    Attached Files:

  2. jcsd
  3. May 14, 2008 #2
    A complete description
    Prove inequality

    [itex]p(y)>0 [/itex] and [itex]\int^\infty_0p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y=1[/itex] for any y

    n is an integer and [itex]n\ge2$[/itex]
  4. May 14, 2008 #3
    When n = 2, both of those inequalities are equal, thus the inequality isn't true for n = 2.
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