Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Heres a stupid question

  1. Mar 25, 2005 #1
    Rather than quote the entire thing I'll just give the link to what I wrote out.

    Mar 19 2005

    http://www.geocities.com/tdunc01/PG21_Physics_and_Theory_Journal_-TDuncan.html

    "I question if it is even possible to collapse the wave-function of a photon."
    "It is unclear to me which particle has been used in all 2-slit experiments."

    and

    "Now the only thing I want to know is, is it possible to reintroduce the wave-function to an electron after you have collapsed/separated it?"

    because if we can re-establish the wave-function then we have a good idea of what we took away by what we put back into it.

    Edit: Guess what I'm after is similar to 'quantum eraser', found this
    http://www.fortunecity.com/emachines/e11/86/qphil.html

    So only when the 2 photons are of opposite polarization does the interference patterns disappear. When you re-polarize the photons they become like again, and bingo the interference pattern is re-established. The wave-like nature or wave-function is linked to polarization and more specifically like polarization. I've always thought of polarization as spin, so when both photons have say spin up we get the wave-function yet if 1 is spin down the wave-function is considered "collapsed". In any case we have to treat the 2 separate photons as a (entangled) single system otherwise there would not be this link.

    Can we then assume in another more common 2-slit experiment that feyman describes that detection of the Electron also involves a change in Polarization? Yet remembering that in that more simple experiment it is not recognized that more than 1 particle is present eg. its not an entangled system - where a polarization change of 1 would alter the system. Here we have only 1 to begin with so to change Its polarization should be meaningless because wave-function depends on a coherent 'more than 1 system' to achieve 'both paths taken' and interference. But I have to disagree and say that the Electron is a 'more than 1 system' all along otherwise it dont make sense.
     
    Last edited: Mar 25, 2005
  2. jcsd
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Can you help with the solution or looking for help too?
Draft saved Draft deleted



Similar Discussions: Heres a stupid question
  1. Stupid question. (Replies: 4)

  2. Stupid Question (Replies: 8)

  3. Stupid quantum question (Replies: 25)

Loading...