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Firepanda
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I'm not too sure how to show this. Perhaps if I show d(ez)/dz = ez then does this conclude that ez is holomorphic on all of C?
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Why does d/dz(e^z)=e^z show e^z is holomorphic? Or at least, why are you saying you aren't sure this shows it's holomorphic?
I suppose I should be using the cauchy riemann equations then?
I was told not to use limits here so I didn't want to use the base definition of holomorphic-ness.
i tried to use C-R, but I'm unable to split it up into
U(x,y) or V(x,y)
using z=x+iy into cosh(z)
How about e^z. Can you split that up?
Sure, check e^(-z) as well. It's almost the same thing. I'm a little puzzled why you can split e^(z) and e^(-z) up and not cosh(z). You already said cosh(z)=(e^z+e^(-z))/2.exeiy
= ex(cosy + i.siny)
=excosy + i.exsiny
The C-R satisfy this and so it is holomorphic on all of C? so this would immediatly imply cosh(z) is entire?
And I would check if it were true for e-z as well.
Sure, check e^(-z) as well. It's almost the same thing. I'm a little puzzled why you can split e^(z) and e^(-z) up and not cosh(z). You already said cosh(z)=(e^z+e^(-z))/2.