Proving Homotopy Equivalence and Contractibility in Algebraic Topology

  • Thread starter Flying_Goat
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Equivalence
In summary: To prove this, you can use the fact that r is a retract and use the definition of a homotopy equivalence.
  • #1
Flying_Goat
16
0
Hi, I am stuck on two problems from Allen Hatcher's book, Algebraic Topology.

Homework Statement
4. A deformation retraction in the weak sense of a space X to a subspace A is a homotopy [itex]f_t[/itex]: X→X such that [itex]f_0[/itex]=[itex]1_X[/itex] (the identity map on X), [itex]f_1[/itex](X) [itex]\subset[/itex] A, and [itex]f_t (A) \subset A[/itex] for all t. Show that if X deformation retracts to A in this weak sense, then the inclusion [itex]i_A:[/itex]A→X is a homotopy equivalence.

The attempt at a solution
We want to show that there exists f:X→A such that [itex]f i_A[/itex] [itex]\approx[/itex] [itex]1_A[/itex] and [itex]i_A f \approx 1_X[/itex]. Define F:A[itex]\times[/itex]I→A by F(t,x) = [itex]f_t i_A[/itex]. We then have F(0,x) = [itex]f_0 i_A[/itex] = [itex]1_A[/itex] and F(1,x)=[itex]f_1 i_A[/itex].

Now, for each t [itex]\in[/itex] [0,1] define [itex]X_t=f_t(X)[/itex]. Let [itex]i_{X_t} : X_t → X [/itex] be the natural inclusion. Now, define G:X[itex]\times[/itex]I→X to be G(t,x) = [itex]i_{X_t} f_t[/itex]. Then G(0,x) =[itex] i_X f_0 = 1_X[/itex] and G(1,x) = [itex]i_{X_1} f_1[/itex]. Since [itex]f_1(X)\subset A[/itex], it follows that [itex]i_{X_1} f_1 = i_A f_1[/itex].

I don't know how to prove that F is continous. I am not sure if G is even continous, its the only thing i could come up with. Also I haven't used the fact that [itex]f_t (A) \subset A[/itex] for all t. What did I miss?

Homework Statement
9. Show that a retract of a contractible space is contractible.

The attempt at a solution
So we are given a retract from a space X to a subset A. We know that there exists a homotopy between [itex]1_X[/itex] and a constant map. I am not sure where to go from here. I just wanted to ask that if say X contracts to [itex]x_0[/itex], does A necessarily contain [itex]x_0[/itex]? Because if [itex]x_0\in A[/itex] then we can just restrict the homotopy to A and we would have shown that A is contractible.

Any help would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
For the first problem, you have the right idea, but you need to show that F and G are continuous. To do this, you can use the fact that f_t (A) \subset A for all t. Show that for any x in A, F(t,x) is continuous in t and G(t,x) is continuous in t.For the second problem, the key idea is to show that the retract r:X→A is actually a homotopy equivalence. This means that there exists a homotopy h:A→X such that hr≅1_A and r h≅1_X. Since X is contractible, this implies that A is contractible as well.
 

What is homotopy equivalence?

Homotopy equivalence is a mathematical concept that describes the relationship between two spaces that can be continuously deformed into one another. It is a type of equivalence relation that is used to classify spaces in algebraic topology.

How is homotopy equivalence different from homeomorphism?

While both homotopy equivalence and homeomorphism involve continuous deformations, they differ in their level of strictness. Homotopy equivalence only requires the existence of a continuous map between two spaces that can be continuously deformed into each other, while homeomorphism requires the map to be bijective and have a continuous inverse.

What are some examples of spaces that are homotopy equivalent?

A classic example of two homotopy equivalent spaces is a circle and a figure-eight, as they can both be continuously deformed into one another. Other examples include a sphere and a point, a torus and a coffee mug, and a Mobius strip and a cylinder.

What is the significance of homotopy equivalence in mathematics?

Homotopy equivalence is a fundamental concept in algebraic topology, as it allows for the classification and comparison of spaces based on their topological properties. It also plays a crucial role in the study of higher-dimensional spaces and their properties.

Can a space be homotopy equivalent to itself?

Yes, a space can be homotopy equivalent to itself. This is known as a homotopy equivalence to the identity map, where the continuous deformation is simply a trivial map that does not change the space. In this case, the space is said to be homotopically trivial.

Similar threads

  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
228
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
5
Views
222
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
504
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • Math Proof Training and Practice
Replies
25
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • Classical Physics
Replies
0
Views
139
  • Topology and Analysis
Replies
7
Views
1K
Back
Top